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Question -

Letf:  bea function defined as f (x) = .The inverse of f is the map g: 



Answer -

Range f–>  given by
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 


Solution

Itis given that

Let y bean arbitrary element of Range f.

Then,there exists x ∈such that 
Let us define g:Rangeas
Now,
∴ 

Thus, g isthe inverse of f i.e., f−1 = g.

Hence,the inverse of f is the map g: Range, which is given by

The correct answer is B.

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